Author Topic: Fall of France Clarification  (Read 3569 times)

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Yoper

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Fall of France Clarification
« on: October 10, 2006, 02:24:15 AM »
When France falls what happens to the territories that France controlled? 

Do they automatically become controlled by the UK or are they just uncontrolled until one side or the other occupies them?

This really became an issue in our last game because the UK player wanted to know if he could strategically rail through said territories.

Another clarification needed is concerning the set up of Vichy France.  As long as there are UK units in the Southern France territory does that stop Vichy France from being set up? 

It is write in the rules that the Vichy units are not placed until the Allied units vacate the territory.  If the Axis occupy the territory, how are the Axis units dealt with (retreated) so that Vichy can be established?

Would occupation of said territory by the UK prevent any French ship that is rolled to become Vichy from actually becoming Vichy since they are to be set up in the adjacent sea zone (i.e. they have no port to base from)?

Craig

Mark

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Re: Fall of France Clarification
« Reply #1 on: October 10, 2006, 03:59:22 AM »
"When France falls what happens to the territories that France controlled? Do they automatically become controlled by the UK or are they just uncontrolled until one side or the other occupies them?"

They become unnocupied (and uncontrolled) neutrals - their production points go to whoever occupies them or to no one if no one occupies them.

"This really became an issue in our last game because the UK player wanted to know if he could strategically rail through said territories."

The territories would have to be occupied and controlled by the British player at the beginning of the movement phase for the Brits to strategically rail through them.  This could only be achieved if the Brits had a British unit in the French territory when France collapsed.

"Another clarification needed is concerning the set up of Vichy France.  As long as there are UK units in the Southern France territory does that stop Vichy France from being set up?"

It only prevents Vichy units from being set up in Southern France - not the rest of the Vichy territories (In the rules, Southern France is sometimes referred to as Vichy France - sorry for the confusion).  Per the rules, the Vichy units in Southern Frence appear once the British vacate the Southern France territory.

"It is writen in the rules that the Vichy units are not placed until the Allied units vacate the territory.  If the Axis occupy the territory, how are the Axis units dealt with (retreated) so that Vichy can be established?"

Per the rules: "If there are Axis units present in Vichy, they are automatically retreated to an adjacent Axis controlled territory."  Please add "immediately" to automoatically - as in - "as soon as combat is over" - the German and Italian units are retreated and the Vichy units are place in Southern France.

"Would occupation of said territory by the UK prevent any French ship that is rolled to become Vichy from actually becoming Vichy since they are to be set up in the adjacent sea zone (i.e. they have no port to base from)?"

No - control of Vichy (Southern) France has no effect on the disposition of the French fleet.


For historical rationalization purposes, really a roll of 2-5 for the French ships means they went true Vichy neutral and are scuttled if anyone gets close to them (so they are removed) -or- the British Navy sinks them (operation catapult).  A "1" means pro-Axis (which really didn't happen) and a "6" means Free French (which did not happen to that many).  not that ports are necessary for sea zones, but, if the allies control Southern France and the axis get lucky enough to get a ship or two - just assume they use the Italian port of Genoa (which also borders that sea zone) until the Axis clear Southern France for the Vichy regime.

cheers,
Mark